There might be some discussion about payment of taxes, or that only the brand will work, or the consultant said I must have the brand etc...
The other day, however a patient said to me "Ok then, I'll pay the difference" - but this puts us in a very strange place indeed...I refused, but let's think about it a bit more...
A first thought might be that it feels morally wrong...as the supply is on the NHS and this smacks of top-ups...
Another thought, however, might be, if you take the money for the difference, and the NHS pays for the generic - the pharmacy is making no profit on the brand bit and the patient gets the brand...so what's the problem?
So the question here is - is it legal anyway to take the money from the patient for the brand?
"If you were to supply a branded product, and to charge the differential, this could be interpreted as deviating from the charge set within legislation and could be problematic if regulatory/enforcing bodies become involved. This could be compounded by the grouping of the patient if classified as a vulnerable adult.
Additionally there was some generic private care / NHS patients guidance which was published in 2009 following consultation and widespread discussion.
This is available on the link below
One of the executive key points was that the “NHS should never subsidise private care” "
So the bottom line is that to take money from patients to give the brand is frowned on and might be thought of as a breach of your terms of service!